Business research methods examination question and answer

We find that permanently increasing sleep by an hour per week for everybody in a city, increases the wages in that location by about 4. Non-equivalent control group posttest only, Non-equivalent control group pretest-posttest, Interrupted time series, or Non-equivalent control group interrupted time series?

Using "city of residence" as their quasi-experimental operationalization of "amount of sleep", the economists were ready to report the results for wages: The two cities have different historical trajectories and different ethnic diversities; they are in two different states that have different fiscal policies and industry bases.

If we plot the average bedtime for people as a function of how far east they are within a time zone, we see this very nice, clean nice straight line with earlier bedtime for people at the more eastern location.

People in cities in the Eastern portion of time zones get more sleep and have higher wages than people in the Western portions.

Perhaps Amarillo has poorer wages in general and people are losing out on sleep there because they are working more than one job. East or West" and the DV is "Wages". What is the dependent variable? Nevertheless, the method and results of this quasi-experiment are certainly consistent with the argument that getting more sleep may be a factor in earning higher wages.

Consider two places like Huntsville, Alabama — which is near the eastern edge of the Central Time Zone — and Amarillo, Texas, near the western edge of the Central zone. Now consider, how might many of these internal validity threats be reduced by conducting the same analysis over many other city pairs?

Amarillo and other pairs of cities that had a similar sleep gap. So now Gibson and Shrader plugged in wage data for Huntsville vs. However, the second direction certainly seems less plausible than the first. However, these internal validity threats become less of an issue when you consider multiple pairs of cities.

Almost as though we go out in the United States and force people to sleep different amounts and then watch what the outcome is on their wages. What we need is something like an experiment for sleep.

The economists mentioned that, in order to establish a causal link between sleep and income: Can their study support this claim?

If you get an extra hour per night, Gibson and Shrader discovered — here, let me quote you their paper: But since Huntsville and Amarillo are in the same time zone, people start work at roughly the same time, which means alarm clocks go off at roughly the same time.

Temporal precedence is unclear, I think: So the economists took an alternative path and used quasi-experimental data. It turns out that the human body, our sleep cycle responds more strongly to the sun than it does to the clock.

In a creative twist, they compared wages at two ends of a single American time zone. Is there a causal connection?

As for internal validity, if we consider only the city pair of Huntsville and Amarillo, we could come up with several alternative explanations.Business Research Methods Examination Question And Answer.

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Business research methods examination question and answer
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